A company has Liabilities of $23,500 and Stockholders’ Equity of $56,500. How much does the company have in Assets?

Final Examination

Financial Accounting
EXAMINATION NUMBER:

06158300

Complete the following exam by answering the questions and compiling your answers into a word-processing document. When you’re ready to submit your answers, refer to the instructions at the end of your exam booklet. It’s not necessary to type the questions. Type only the solution to the question. Be certain to indicate the proper question number before each of your answers. Remember to show your work if an answer requires a mathematical solution.

Answer each of the following questions. Each answer is worth 4 points.

1. A company has Liabilities of $23,500 and Stockholders’ Equity of $56,500. How much does the company have in Assets?
2. Beginning Retained Earnings are $65,000; sales are $29,500; expenses are $33,000; and dividends paid are $3,500. How much is the net income or loss for the company?
3. The account “Salaries Expense” began with a zero balance and then had the following changes: increase of $450, decrease of $175, increase of $600, and an increase of $350. What is the final balance of the “Salaries Expense” account, and is it a debit or credit?
4. A $375 purchase of supplies on account was recorded by debiting Supplies for $375 and crediting Cash for $375. What is the journal entry needed to correct this error?
5. Allied, Inc. bought a two-year insurance policy on August 1 for
$3,600. What is the adjusting journal entry on December 31?

6. A company started the year with no supplies. During the year they bought $200 worth of supplies on account and later paid $150 of this debt. If there were $40 worth of supplies left at the end of the year, what is the supply expense for the period?
7. ABC Corporation has received an invoice for $4,500 with terms of 3/15, n/50. If ABC pays the invoice on the seventeenth day, what is the effect on the Cash account and will the Cash account be debited or credited?
8. Bond and Associates has the following account balances listed in alphabetical order: Accumulated Depreciation, $23,000; Accounts Payable, $8,500; Accounts Receivable,
$12,000; Cash, $3,500; Equipment, $44,000; Land, $21,000; Mortgage Payable,
$45,000; Prepaid Insurance, $7,500; Supplies, $2,000; Unearned Revenue, $6,000; Wages Payable, $4,500. How much are Bond and Associates’ current liabilities?
9. Olympic Enterprises has the following inventory data:
Date Quantity Unit cost

June 1
Beginning inventory
5
$52

June 4
Purchase
10
$55

June 7
Sale
12

June 11
Purchase
9
$58

June 14
Sale
8

Assuming average cost, what is the cost of goods sold for the June 14 sale?
10. A company has $4,500 in net sales, $3,200 in gross profit, $1,300 in ending inventory, and $1,800 in beginning inventory. What is the company’s cost of goods sold?
11. Goods available for sale are $40,000; beginning inventory is $16,000; ending inventory is $20,000; and the cost of goods sold is $50,000. What is the inventory turnover?
12. Which element of internal control deals with establishing procedures for things such as handling of incoming checks, and which element deals with the oversight of the internal control systems?
13. What is an audit opinion?

14. A company has $235,000 in credit sales. The company uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts now has a $7,250 credit balance. If the company estimates 7% of credit sales will be uncollectible, what is the amount of the journal entry to record estimated uncollectible accounts?
15. Bestway, Inc. had credit sales of $142,000 for the period. The balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is a debit of $643. If Bestway estimates that 2% of credit sales will be uncollectible, what is the required journal entry to record estimated uncollectible accounts?
16. An asset has a cost of $50,000, with a residual value of $10,000. It has a life of 5 years and was purchased on January 1. Under double-declining-balance, what is the asset’s fourth full year of depreciation expense?
17. A truck costing $56,000 has accumulated depreciation of $50,000. The truck is sold for $8,500. What is the journal entry for this transaction?
18. On January 1, Bixby Machine signed a $210,000, 6%, 30-year mortgage that requires semiannual payments of $7,585 on June 30 and December 31 of each year. What is the correct journal entry for recording the second semiannual payment (round interest calculation to the nearest dollar)?
19. On January 1, $500,000 of 8%, 10-year bonds were sold for $530,000. The bonds require semiannual interest payments on June 30 and December 31. What is the correct entry for recording the June 30 interest payment on the bonds?
20. Motor Works, Inc. has declared a $20,000 cash dividend to shareholders. The company has 5,000 shares of $15-par, 10% preferred stock and 10,000 shares of $20-par common stock. The preferred stock is non-cumulative. How much will the preferred and common stockholders receive on the date of payment?
21. Allied Industries, Inc. has 250,000 shares of $7-par common stock outstanding. They have declared a 7% stock dividend. The current market price of the common stock is
$11/share. What is the amount that will be credited to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Common Stock on the date of declaration?
22. Accounts receivable amounts to $215,000 for the beginning of the year and $245,000 for the end of the year. Income reported on the income statement for the year is $300,000. How much is the cash flow from operating activities on the cash flow statement using the indirect method?

23. Operating expenses other than depreciation for the year were $400,000. Accrued expenses increased by $35,000. What are the cash payments for operating expenses reported on the cash flow statement using the direct method?
24. Red Line, Inc. has a cash balance of $80,000, short-term investments of $20,000, net receivables of $60,000, and inventory of $450,000. Current liabilities total $200,000. What is Red Line’s quick ratio?
25. River City, Inc. reported the following for 2014:
Net sales
$220,000

Net income
$37,000

Market price per share of common stock
$28.75

Dividends
$4,100
Average number of shares of common stock outstanding
10,000

What are the earnings per share for River City, Inc. (to the nearest cent)?

What is the required rate of return of your fund in order to meet your need 18 years from now?

Question 1

  1. The rate of return on a 30-year investment is 4.35%. What is the present value of this investment if it pays $100,000 30 years later?

Question 2

  1. You started an education fund for your child. You are expecting him/her to attend college 18 years from now. According to statistics, the expected amount you will need 18 years later should be $300,000. If the fund provides a rate of return of 10% per year, compounded annually, and no additional contribution is made to the fund, how much do you need to deposit today to meet your need 18 years later?

Question 3

  1. You have $50,000 to start an education fund for your child. You are expecting him/her to attend college 18 years from now. According to statistics, the expected amount you will need 18 years later should be $300,000. What is the required rate of return of your fund in order to meet your need 18 years from now? (Write your answer in decimal format, for example, write 0.05 for 5%)

Question 4

  1. The required rate of return of an investor is 8.5%. An investment provides the following cash flow:
Year Cash Flow
1 $5000
2 $6400
3 $9000
  1. What is the present value of this investment?

Question 5

  1. You received a promotional mail from your banking advertising a new credit card with a stated rate of 15.99% per year. What is the effective annual interest rate of this credit card that compounds monthly?
  2. Given $100, you are interested in how much money will you get 1 years later with different frequency of compounding. If the stated annual rate is 10%, complete the following table (Use decimal format for percentages. For example, 5% should be written as 0.05) .For dollar amounts, round your answers to 2 decimal places; for effective rates, round your answer to 4 decimal places.
Compounding

Period

Future Value

of $100

Effective

Annual Rate

1 year 110.00 0.10
Semi-annual
Quarterly
Monthly
Continuously

Question 7

  1. Given the following yield curve, what is the two-year forward rate 3 years from now? Use decimal format in your answer. For example, 5% should be written as 0.05. Keep 4 decimal places for your answer.
Maturity Annual Rate
1 yr 0.28%
3 yr 1.10%
5 yr 1.71%

Question 8

  1. An 20-year annuity pays $500 a year at year end. If the annuity’s first cash flow starts at the end of year 1 and the interest rate is 4%, what is the present value of this annuity?

Question 9

  1. You just won a lottery of $1,000,000. The lottery payment is made in the form of an annuity duewith the first payment made today. The lottery pays $10,000 every month for 100 months (8 years and 4 months). If the proper discount rate is 4%, what is the actual present value of your winning?

Question 10

  1. You are purchasing a new house at $500,000 in Cincinnati.You’re making the purchase with an initial deposit of $200,000 and the rest with a  30-year fixed rate mortgage with an interest rate of 3.5% per year with payments made monthly.Excluding all fees, what is your monthly mortgage payment?

Question 11

  1. Every month, your employer deposits $1200 into your 401-K account, with the first payment made 1 month from now. The average rate of return on 401-K account is 12%. How much will you have in your 401-K account after working for 5 years, assuming no additional contribution was made?

Question 12

  1. Ms. Gaois thinking of investing in an annuity that pays her $10,000 in one year, and this payment keeps growing by 1% per year till the last payment that occurs 20 years from today. What is the fair value of this investment if the discount rate is 10%?
  2. A project brings the following cash flow to the company. The company uses its WACC (weighted-average cost of capital) as discount rates at 12%.
Years Start CF Growth Rate
1-3 $100,000 2%
4-6 $200,000 8%
7- 10 $80,000 1%
  1. Omit “$” and “,” in your answer. Write ONLY numbers. Round to 2 decimalplaces in all answers submitted.
  2. (1) What is the present value of cash flows from Year 1 to 3?
  3. (2) What is the present valueof cash flows from year 4 to 6? (Hint: Discount back to PRESENT, not year 4)
  4. (3) What is thepresent value of cash flows from year 7 to 10?

 

  1. (4) What is the PV of this project

Explain the ethical issues faced by the organization, summarize the legal and regulatory issues faced by the organization, and then summarize the organization’s corporate social responsibility.

Resources: University of Phoenix Material: Business Model and Strategic Planning Outline; Innovation Business Model, Vision, Mission, Values; Supply and Value Chain; SWOTT Analysis; Balanced Scorecard; Communication Plan

Write a 700- to 1,050-word section for your business model and strategic plan in which you add your strategies and tactics to implement and realize your objectives, measures, and targets.

Include marketing and information technology strategies and tactics.

Develop at least three methods to monitor and control your proposed strategic plan, being sure to analyze how the measures will advance organizational goals financially and operationally.

Explain the ethical issues faced by the organization, summarize the legal and regulatory issues faced by the organization, and then summarize the organization’s corporate social responsibility.

Develop a 350-word page executive summary defining the new division of existing business. Share your Vision, Mission, final business model, value proposition and list your key assumptions, risks, and change management issues. Quantify the growth and profit opportunity and planned impact on various stakeholders.

Note: Any investor should be eager to meet with you after reading your executive summary

What other factors do you think should be considered when modeling the growth of bacteria such as E. coli?

s a medical research technician, you have been assigned the task of modeling the growth of five different strains of the E. coli bacteria. These bacteria are grown in Petri dishes and exposed to the same environmental conditions (food source, pressure, temperature, light, etc.). Each hour, you count and record the number of bacterial cultures in each of the sample Petri dishes. The results for the first 7 hours of observations are recorded in the chart below:

Bacterial Sample Hour 1 Hour 2 Hour 3 Hour 4 Hour 5 Hour 6 Hour 7
1 16 64 256 1024 4096 16,384 65,536
2 97 291 873 2619 7857 23,571 70,713
3 112 784 5488 38,416 268,912 1,882,384 13,176,688
4 7 63 567 5103 45,927 413,343 3,720,087
5 143 286 572 1144 2288 4576 9152

 

Directions: Assuming that the growth pattern for each bacterial sample follows a geometric sequence, determine the following:

 

  1. Determine the rate at which the culture grows in a hour. This rate will be the factor r by which the number of bacterial cultures has increased since the last recorded observation.

 

  1. Write a formula that represents the growth of this bacteria based upon your observations. Your formula will be based upon the basic format for a geometric sequence:

 

 

  1. Using the formula you’ve developed, determine the number of cultures you would expect to see in the Petri dish on the 8th, 10th, and 12th hour of your observations.

 

  1. Compute the total number of bacterial cultures observed after 24 hours of growth assuming that the growth follows a geometric series.

 

  1. Repeat steps 1–4 for all five bacterial samples.

 

In a Microsoft Word document, prepare a report that includes answers to the following:

 

    1. Report the results of the calculations you performed above.

 

    1. Which strain of E. coli exhibited the highest growth rate?

 

    1. Which strain of E. coli exhibited the lowest growth rate?

 

    1. Assuming that all five of the E. coli strains present a high toxicity danger to humans, which do you suppose would be the most manageable based upon growth? Why?

 

    1. Consider how you’ve modeled the growth of the E. coli strains using the concept of geometric sequence. Is this a realistic approach to modeling bacterial growth?

 

    1. What other factors do you think should be considered when modeling the growth of bacteria such as E. coli?

 

  1. Conduct an Internet search for research on E. coli. Look for information related to growth rate, environmental conditions conducive to growth, methods of controlling growth, etc.

 

Assignment 1 Grading Criteria
Maximum Points
Determined the growth rate for each bacterial sample.
64
Wrote a geometric sequence formula modeling the growth of each bacterial sample.
64
Calculated the number of bacterial cultures after 8, 10, and 12 hours of observations for each sample.
84
Calculated the total number of bacterial cultures observed after 24 hours for each sample.
48
Determined which E. coli strain exhibited the highest growth rate.
8
Determined which E. coli strain exhibited the lowest growth rate.
8
Critically determined and explained, based upon information provided, which E. coli toxic strain would be the most manageable.
8
Identified other factors that should be considered when modeling the growth of a bacterial culture.
8
Investigated the growth rate, environmental conditions conducive to growth, and methods of controlling growth related to E. coli.
8
Total:
300

Should the auditing staff be concerned about the spending habits of this particular administrator?

Homework
Student Name:____________________
Worked with:_____________________________________________________________

Please show and explain your work, including which functions you used in Excel – do not just write the answers.

1. MBB Problem 7.2 (modified)
The average (mean) amount of time that a manager at the Mount Pleasant Department of Human Services spends in the annual performance review with an employee is 27.2 minutes, with a standard deviation of 4.9 minutes (normal distribution).

(a) What percentage of the annual performance reviews in the department take between 22.3 and 32.1 minutes?

(b) Between 17.4 and 37 minutes?

(c) Between 12.5 and 41.9 minutes?
2. MBB Problem 7.6 (modified)
Refer to Problem 7.5 (which we covered in lecture).

(a) During the negotiations with the automobile manufacturer, Parnelli gets a sinking feeling that some of the cars he is thinking of purchasing for the forestry service might average less than 20 miles to the gallon of gasoline. According to the road test data, what percentage of the cars can be expected to fall below this mileage level? Should Parnelli be very worried?

(b) Parnelli wants to be able to tell his superiors that at least 90% of cars purchased from this manufacturer will get a certain number of miles per gallon. Help him find the miles per gallon number that he can expect 90% of these cars to exceed.

3. MBB Problem 7.12 (modified)
Administrators at the national headquarters of the Center for the Display of Visual Arts are authorized to make small work- related purchases using purchasing cards. The average amount administrators charge to their cards per month is $278 with a standard deviation of 33 dollars. The data are normally distributed. The auditing staff at the center is concerned with the spending patterns of an administrator who has averaged $349 per month in charges.

(a) What percentage of balances are between $278 and $349 per month?

(b) What percentage of balances exceed $349 per month?

(c) Find the lower and upper dollar amounts that cover the middle 90% of monthly charges.

(d) Should the auditing staff be concerned about the spending habits of this particular administrator?
4. MBB Problem 8.6
Traditionally, one-half of all cities that apply get job training grants. Four southern cities apply for grants, but none receive them. Assume all the cities were equally qualified. What is the probability that no southern city gets a grant?

5. MBB Problem 8.14
The BFOQ Job Training Corporation believes that it has a new program that will increase job placements. Essentially, the corporation thinks that if it runs its trainees through a simulated interview before sending them out on a job interview, their likelihood of getting the job increases. BFOQ randomly selects 36 individuals of relatively equal skills on a matched-pair basis. Eighteen of these individuals are run through the simulation. BFOQ then sends one pair, one person who went through the training and one person who did not, to interview for one of 18 different jobs. (These individuals are the only ones to interview for the jobs.) Thirteen of the eighteen persons who went through the simulation get the jobs. What is the probability that 13 of the 18 would get jobs if there were no difference between the two sets of 18 persons?

6. MBB Problem 9.12 (modified)
The mean number of water main breaks is .4 per hour. In a 10-hour night shift, four mains break.

(a) What is the probability of exactly four mains breaking?

(b) Of four or more breaking?

(c) Which probability tells you the most about the chance of this situation happening?

7. MBB Problem 9.16
The University of Wisconsin employs 200 teaching assistants (TAs). If one-third of the TAs sign a petition calling for a collective bargaining election, an election will be held. A survey of 50 TAs indicates that 40% will sign the petition. What is the probability that a sample such as this could have occurred if one-third or fewer of the TAs in the population will sign such a petition?

Discuss Interpretation of a song through critical thinking and using an ethical lens.

Appendix E. Interpretation of a song through critical thinking and using an ethical lens.
Song Title: Lonesome Death of Hattie Carroll.
Artist: Bob Dylan
Genre: Folk
Stanza 1: William Zanzinger killed poor Hattie Carroll
With a cane that he twirled through his diamond ring fingers
At a Baltimore hotel society gath’rin’
And the cops where brought in and the weapon took from him

Refrain: But you who philosophize disgrace and criticize all fears
Take the rag away from your face
Now ain’t the time for your tears.

Ethical Assessment:
The most unethical or immoral act happened and was portrayed in the first stanza.
An older woman was killed by a young man. Evidently he was twirling his cane and it flew through the air and bludgeoned Hattie Carroll.
Got killed by a blow, lay slain by a cane; that sailed through the air and came down through the room, Doomed and determined to destroy all the gentle
This is the antecedent we know to be a fact. The ethical questioning begins here. The man had a cane, he twirled it, it flew in the air and struck a blow to Hattie Carol’s head.
There is no intent of murder. However, there was a killing and the cops were brought in.
Bob Dylan begins to paint a musical picture of class, wealth, servitude, humility and privilege. Humility was not a virtue for William Zanzinger. Dylan writes: he reacted to his deed with a shrug of his shoulders, and swear words and sneering and his tongue it was snarling. William Zanzinger is described as prideful and connected to power. He is angry that the cops interrupted his night out on the town. One can almost hear his snarl as “how dare they take me off in a police car”. He is important; Hattie Carroll is not.

She was a mother and worked hard for very little reward. William Zanzinger was wealthy and privileged. He was upper class. He owned six hundred acres of tobacco fields. His family were admired and honored by society particularly in Baltimore. In a few lines Bob Dylan sings that the Zanzingers are what other nations call nobles or elites.
Dylan then begins to write and sing how the differences in class make a difference in how we judge right and wrong. For me the power of the song is that it lays bare the injustices of a class system. The constitution of the United States eloquently and concisely states “justice for all”. It does not promote more or better “justice” for those with money. The United States is seen as a place where one has equal opportunity to excel and individuals use those opportunities to build better lives for themselves, their community and the world. According to the framers of the constitution and more recently, John Rawl’s justice must be meted out with a steady hand and without prejudice. This notion of equality fairness and justice however, is artfully challenged by the song writer.
This song’s tension between humility and pride, power and service is clearly laid out. Money, prestige and political influence are stressed against humility and gratitude. This tension is the ethical dilemma that breaks in favor of the rich and powerful family known in Baltimore as the Zanzingers.
Dylan masterfully exposes the injustice in his last stanza and refrain. It is fitting and classic. The song’s story line is no longer about the injustice of Hattie Carroll’s killing and trial but about societies continuing injustice towards the humble people raising families, working and hoping for a better life.
Last Stanza: In the courtroom of honor, the judge pounded his gavel
To show that all’s equal and that the courts are on the level
And that the strings in the books ain’t pulled and persuaded
And that even the nobles get properly handled
Once that the cops have chased after and caught’em
And the ladder of law has no top and no bottom
Stared at the person who killed for no reason
Who just happened to be feelin’ that way without warnin’
And he spoke through his cloak, most deep and distinguished
And handed out strongly, for penalty and repentance
William Zanzinger with a six-month sentence
Final Refrain: Oh, but you who philosophize disgrace and criticize all fears
Bury the rag deep in your face
For now’s the time for your tears.
Ethical Summary:
This is a song that questions fairness and justice in our society. Power and money may not always win the day but certainly we all know of situations where justice does not mean equality and fairness for all. Moreover, a six month sentence for killing someone is a travesty of justice and certainly not proportional for the act and arrogance intertwined with the entire situation. John Rawl’s wrote that justice keeps freedom and equality in balance. This song exposes the hypocrisy that happens to often in our justice system: the powerful have more freedom than the rest of us. When the powerful are not punished for wrongful acts, society questions the fairness of the system. Worse is that questioning becomes distrust and eventually social unrest.

 

What is the maximum penalty that OSHA can assess for a single workplace violation?

Test 1

Question 1
What is the maximum penalty that OSHA can assess for a single workplace violation?

$7,000

$14, 000

$70,000

$700,000
6 points
Question 2
Which of the following statements is TRUE?

OSHA has separate standards covering women in the workplace.

OSHA requires all employees to speak English.

OSHA recognizes that PPE designed for men may not be adequate for women.

OSHA standards do not apply to temporary employees on construction sites.
6 points
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT an employee right under the OSH Act?

To contest an OSHA citation

To file a complaint with OSHA

To request access to hazard exposure records

To review the employer’s current injury log
6 points
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of employers under the OSH Act?

To post OSHA citations

To compensate workers for wages lost due to injury

To allow workers to review their exposure and medical records

To inform workers how to report injuries and illnesses
6 points
Question 5
If a specific workplace hazard is not addressed in OSHA’s construction standards, what standard(s) can be used to determine compliance?

NFPA 101

29 CFR 1910

29 CFR 1926

OHSAS 18001
Question 6
What might be some reasons that the construction industry has a higher fatality rate than other industries?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 7
Imagine you are the supervisor of a construction crew in which half of the workers speak only limited English. What steps should you take to ensure everyone fully understands the hazards of the job and how to work safely?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Question 8
Explain the rationale for workers’ compensation. What are the objectives of workers’ compensation? Who is covered by this program, and how does it help prevent future accidents?

Your essay should be at least 200 words in length and include an introduction, a body, and a conclusion.

Test 2
Question 1
Which of the following lists contains four of the six core injury/illness program elements?

Worksite analysis, safety committees, program evaluation, management leadership

Hazard prevention and control, management leadership, worker participation, education and training

Worksite analysis, safety manager, program evaluation, hazard prevention and control

Hazard identification, management leadership, program evaluation, safety manager
6 points
Question 2
According to OSHA, who should participate in an accident investigation?

The employee involved and the supervisor

The employee involved and the safety manager

The supervisor and the safety manager

The supervisor and the medical officer
6 points
Question 3
A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) focuses on the relationship between:

the worker, the supervisor, the tools, and the environment.

the tools, the task, the environment, and the worker.

the supervisor, the task, the worker, and the tools.

the task, the environment, the worker, and the supervisor.
6 points
Question 4
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question used to interview witnesses during an accident investigation?

What was the injured employee doing right before the accident happened?

Was the injured employee wearing the correct PPE for the job?

Did you see the accident happen?

Was the injured employee following the job procedures?
6 points
Question 5
According to OSHA, what do most corporate financial decision makers regard as a top benefit of effective injury/illness prevention programs?

Greater retention of employees

Better employee morale

Reduced costs

Increased productivity
Question 6
How often should a construction worksite be inspected? Provide the rationale for your recommendation.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 7
Discuss some criteria for selecting members of a worksite inspection team. Which one do you think is the most important, and why?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length
Question 8
What is the relationship between employee factors and management factors in accident causation? Why do you think many accidents result in “employee error” as the major cause?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length.

Question 9
Think of a job common to construction worksites (for example, hanging drywall). List the steps for the job. For one of the steps, describe the potential hazards and suggest some possible control measures.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length.
Test 3
Question 1
What is defined in OSHA Standard 1926.32(f)?

General Duty Clause

General Inspection Procedure

Qualified Person

Competent Person
6 points
Question 2
Which list is in the order of OSHA’s priorities for inspections?

Fatalities, referrals, complaints, planned

Planned, complaints, follow-ups, referrals

Fatalities, complaints, referrals, follow-ups

Imminent danger, complaints, planned, follow-ups
6 points
Question 3
Training requirements for gas welding can be found in:

29 CFR 1926.350

29 CFR 1926.351

29 CFR 1926.651

29 CFR 1926.957
6 points
Question 4
Employers are required by OSHA to review emergency evacuations with employees at specific times. Which of the following is NOT one of those times?

Whenever the plan is changed

Initially when the plan is developed

Annually once implemented

Whenever designated actions under the plan change
6 points
Question 5
OSHA uses a two-step process to determine if a citation is warranted under the multi-employer worksite policy. The second step of the process is to:

determine if an OSHA standard was violated.

determine if the employer’s actions were sufficient to meet obligations of OSHA requirement.

determine if the employer willfully violated the standard.

determine which employer is the controlling employer.
6 points
Question 6
What are the four classifications of employers under OSHA’s multi-employer worksite policy? How do they relate to each other?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 7
According to the OSHA construction standards, what is a competent person? Discuss two examples of competent person requirements from the construction standards.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 8
Using the requirements for General Duty violations in Chapter 4 of the OSHA Field Operations Manual (FOM) describe a situation that could be cited as a violation of the General Duty Clause. Remember that the General Duty Clause can only be applied if there is no OSHA standard for the hazard. Explain how your citation meets the four elements listed in the FOM as necessary to prove such a violation.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length.
Question 9
Imagine that you are the safety manager on a large construction site and are notified that an OSHA inspector has arrived at the site gate, inspection warrant in-hand, requesting access. Describe the procedures you would follow to accommodate the inspector’s request and how the inspection should proceed.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length.

Test 4
Question 1
Electric hand tools do not need to be grounded if:

they are owned by the employee.

they have been inspected in the last month.

they are not used in wet environments.

they are double insulated.
10 points
Question 2
Which class of hard hat provides high voltage protection?

Class A

Class C

Class E

Class F
10 points
Question 3
At a construction site, the travel distance to the nearest fire extinguisher shall not exceed __________ feet.

50

75

100

200
10 points
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT a required component of Powered Industrial Truck training?

Annual refresher

Formal instruction

Practical training

Evaluation of Performance
10 points
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a criterion for selecting eye protection?

Durable and easy to clean

Approved by OSHA

Protects against specific hazards

Does not interfere with other PPE
10 points
Question 6
Your four-person crew needs to move 100 bags of concrete from one side of the construction site to the other. The bags are on a pallet, but there is not enough room for a forklift where the bags are to be placed. Discuss some ways that the bags could be safely moved without a forklift and not cause back strains or other injuries.

Question 7
In your safety inspection of the worksite, you notice in the carpenter shop that the radial saw’s guard has been removed. The shop foreman states that the guard is preventing him from cutting lumber for a special project that must be completed before the end of the week. The foreman assures you that only a qualified operator will use the saw without the guard, and the saw will be locked out when not in use so that no one else can operate it. As the safety manager, can you support this action and condition? Why, or why not?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length.
Test 5
Question 1
A ladder or stairway is required at work points of access where there is a break in elevation of __________ inches or more

12

19

22

24
4 points
Question 2
What is the maximum permissible height for a supported scaffold when braces are not used?

20 feet

30 feet

Four times the minimum base dimension

Four times the largest base dimension
4 points
Question 3
When using a portable ladder to access a roof, the side rails:

must extend at least 3 feet above the roof edge.

should extend at least 2 feet above the roof edge.

should not extend above the roof edge.

must be even with the roof edge.
4 points
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT a component of an assured equipment grounding conductor program?

Competent person

Ground fault circuit interrupters

Continuity tests

Daily visual inspections
4 points
Question 5
Electric-arc welding is a type of __________ welding.

pressure

gas

fission

fusion
4 points
Question 6
What does the term “fully planked” mean in relationship to scaffold platforms? Why is it important?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 7
Briefly explain three ways that exposure to welding fumes can be reduced in an outdoor working environment. Which of the three would be the most efficient?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 8
Describe how electrical shock can contribute to falls on a construction site. Provide at least two examples.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length
Question 9

What is the difference between a handrail and a stair rail? When are they required?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
TEST 6
Question 1
For excavations that are more than 4 feet in depth, what is maximum allowable travel distance to the nearest safe means of egress?

10 feet

15 feet

20 feet

25 feet
6 points
Question 2
What is the minimum required clearance when a crane is operating in the vicinity of a 150 kV power line?

10 feet

15 feet

20 feet

25 feet
6 points
Question 3
Hardware used in the lifting precast concrete must be capable of supporting __________ times the intended load applied or transmitted.

6

5

4

2
6 points
Question 4
In evaluating soil, if the thumb penetrates no further than the length of the thumbnail, it is probably __________.

type A soil

type B soil

type C soil

layered geological strata
6 points
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a specification for a limited access zone during masonry wall construction?

On the unscaffolded side of the wall

Established prior to the start of construction

Equal in width to one-half the height of the wall

Run the entire length of the wall
6 points
Question 6
29 CFR 1926 Subpart CC requires that workers understand the crane safety training they are provided. Suggest some ways to ensure understanding is achieved. How can workers’ understanding be verified?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length
Question 7
Discuss the differences between shields, shoring, and sloping in the context of protective systems used in excavation. How is the appropriate system selected?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 8
Discuss the site evaluation steps that should be taken before starting an excavation project. Which step(s) are likely to contribute the most in preventing excavation injuries?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length
Question 9
What is the purpose of conducting an engineering survey prior to a demolition project? Describe and discuss the major components of an engineering survey for the demolition of a two-story wood structure.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length

TEST 7
Question 1
Discuss three ways that information on the hazards of chemicals used in the workplace must be provided to employees.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 2
What is the difference between a permit-required confined space and a non-permit required confined space? Provide examples that illustrate the difference.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 3
Describe the four main topic areas that must be addressed in hazard communication training for employees.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 4
Once employees are authorized to enter a permit-required space, what ongoing measures must be in place to ensure their continued safety?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

TEST 8
Question 1
What is a controlled decking zone (CDZ)? What are the requirements for working in a CDZ?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Question 2
Describe four duties of the controlling contractor on a steel erection site.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Question 3
Explain the difference in fall protection requirements for connectors working in steel erection between 15 feet and 30 feet in height and connectors working more than two stories or 30 feet in height.

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Question 4
Discuss some ways that employee exposure to overhead loads during steel erection can be reduced. When is working under a load permitted?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

For which of the two bonds in each example would you expect to generally pay the higher interest rate?

Directions: Please answer the questions below.  Your response to each question must be at least one paragraph in length.  Explain your thoughts with theory and examples from the textbook if applicable.

 

 

 

1.      For which of the two bonds in each example would you expect to generally pay the higher interest rate?  Explain why.

 

1.   A U.S. government bond or a Brazilian government bond

 

2.   A U.S. government bond or a municipal bond with the same term and issued by a creditworthy municipality

 

3.   A 6-month Treasury bill or a 20-year Treasury bond

 

4.   A Microsoft bond or a bond issued by a new recording company

 

 

 

2.      Identify each of the following acts as representing either saving or investment.

 

1.   Fred uses some of his income to buy government bonds.

 

2.   Julie takes some of her income and buys mutual funds.

 

3.   Alex purchases a new truck for his delivery business using borrowed funds.

 

4.   Elaine uses some of her income to buy stock in a major corporation.

 

5.   Henrietta hires a builder to construct a new building for her bicycle shop.

 

 

 

3.      Explain whether you would prefer to have $225 today or wait five years for $300 depends on the interest rate.  Show your work.

 

 

 

4.      Write the rule of 70.  Suppose that your great-great-grandmother put $50 in a savings account 100 years ago and the account is now worth $1,600.  Use the rule of 70 to determine about what interest rate she earned.

 

 

 

5.      List three different ways that a risk-averse person can reduce financial risk by identifying the type of fiscal policy present.

 

 

 

6.      Following the recession of 2001, there was a month in which employment and the unemployment rate both rose.  Assuming the computation was correct, how is it possible for both to have increased?

 

 

 

7.      Why might a favorable change in the economy, such as technological improvement or a decrease in the price of imported oil, be associated with an increase in frictional unemployment?

 

 

 

8.      What is the theory of efficiency wages?  Provide four reasons that employers might pay efficiency.

 

 

 

 

 

PART II

 

 

 

Directions: Read through the unemployment statistics on the website of the Bureau of Labor Statistics (http://www.bls.gov/cps/cps_htgm.htm).  Choose at least three of the examples listed to determine if someone is or is not unemployed.  Note the example, the answer according to the BLS web site, and whether you believe that is a logical and reasonable method of assessment for unemployment.  Document your answers in a paper that is at least two to three pages in length.  Your submission must be in APA format with at least one scholarly citation.  Please utilize the LIRN library to help you get started with your research.  You may visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize the LIRN library successfully.

 

 

 

 

 

PART III: Reflection Paper

 

 

 

Directions: Think to a time when you or someone you know was unemployed.  What were the circumstances behind it?  What ramifications did it have for the individual?  How did you or the person you are writing about eventually find work?  What can we do to limit our risk to unemployment?  Your submission must be at least two pages in length and in APA format.

How would you ensure quality and reliability of data?

To prepare for this Application, first focus on the following instructions:

  • Review Chapter 10 in the course text, Research Design, the “Trustworthiness” and “Threats to Internal Validity” handouts, and the “Mixed Methods: Examples” media segment.
  • Review the article “On Becoming a Pragmatic Researcher: The Importance of Combining Quantitative and Qualitative Research Methodologies.”
  • Consult Table 10.1 (p. 205) in the course text, Research Design, to guide you in polishing your abbreviated mixed methods research plan.

Next, ask yourself the following questions:

  • What are your research questions? To what extent can you test them? How would you justify the viability of your questions?
  • What are your hypotheses? How would you test them?
  • Why would this design be the most appropriate for answering the research questions? Conversely, why would quantitative or qualitative on their own not be appropriate?
    • For a mixed methods design, which design is the primary one? Why is that appropriate?
  • What approach would you select for this study (experimental, survey, ethnography, grounded theory, etc.)? Why is that approach the most appropriate one for answering the research questions?
  • What theoretical framework or perspective would you use?
  • What is your target population? How would you identify and recruit participants? What factors would contribute to determining appropriate sample size? You will not need to calculate sample size for this assignment.
  • If appropriate for your plan, what instruments might you need?
  • What data collection procedures might you use? Why would those be the most appropriate methods to use? How would that data help to answer your research question(s)/hypotheses?
  • How would you ensure quality and reliability of data?
  • What are threats to validity? How might you mitigate them?
  • How might you analyze the data?
  • What are the ethical considerations related to the plan?

The assignment:

  • Craft a 2- to 3-page paper in which you do the following:
    • Provide an introduction.
    • Provide a purpose statement.
    • Provide viable research questions/hypotheses.
    • Generate a written research plan that addresses the above questions